REI Wealth Magazine Featuring Paul Finck | Page 57
"In looking at a
foreclosure, a lender
has to strategize.In
the case of the second
mortgage, it is
imperative that the
first does not
foreclose out the
second as there is
usually nothing left
over from the
foreclosure to pay the
second."
M
any lenders opt to only fund first
mortgages because they believe
that second mortgages are too
risky, but is that always the case?
Not always. Not all second
mortgages are equal.
Many private lenders may choose to fund a junior
lien where the first mortgage is relatively small in
comparison to the second. For example, a $200,000
second behind a first of only $40,000 on a property
worth $500,000 would be an attractive loan to fund for
many lenders, especially if they can command a higher
interest rate due to the fact that the loan is in second
position. However, if there is a foreclosure in the future,
the second will somehow have to deal with the first
mortgage. This can be troublesome if the first is very
large; especially if the second is relatively small in
comparison to the first. Why?
In looking at a foreclosure, a lender has to strategize.
In the case of the second mortgage, it is imperative that
the first does not foreclose out the second as there is
usually nothing left over from the foreclosure to pay the
second. In California, the foreclosing party gets to
“credit bid” its loan. This means that it can simply bid
[at the auction/trustee sale] what it is owed. Non
foreclosing parties need to come up with cashier’s checks
in order to bid. This can be a potential hardship for the
second mortgage if the first is the foreclosing party.
For example, if we look at a situation where the
property has a value of $1,400,000, the first is $800,000
and the second is $200,000 and the first is the foreclosing
party, the first would most likely credit bid its entire
$800,000 [it does have the right to bid less than what it is
owed, but, if the value is reasonably higher than what is
owed to the first, it will normally credit bid what it is
entirely owed. The times where the lender bids lower than
its entire principal balance is when the lender does not
want to own the property and is willing to take a loss just
to get the loan off of its books, or the value of the property
does not substantially exceed the balance of the first
mortgage].
Any bidder at the auction/trustee sale would need to
come up with $800,000 at the auction itself or more
should any bid exceed $800,000 if the bidder wants to be
the highest bidder. In this instance [where the first
mortgage is the foreclosing party], the second is not
allowed to credit bid its $200,000 balance. It would need
to come up with the $800,000 to pay off the first and its
$200,000 second mortgage in order to be made whole.
True, the second would just get its $200,000 back because
that is what it is owed, but, unfortunately, in this case,
since it was not the foreclosing party, it has to come up
with cash just as any other bidder. Only the foreclosing
party is allowed to credit bid.
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